Showing posts with label Exam Aid. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Exam Aid. Show all posts

Saturday, October 31, 2009

TOEFL Paper-and-Pencil with 3 audio CDs: Kaplan



Description: Kaplan's TOEFL® Paper-and-Pencil with 3 Audio CDs, Third Edition, is a complete review of all the material on the paper-based and computer-based TOEFL® exam. You get 3 realistic practice tests; Kaplan's powerful test-taking strategies; and easy-to-understand grammar, reading, listening, and writing reviews. TOEFL® Paper-and-Pencil will help you to score higher on the TOEFL® exam and get into the North American university or profession you want.


SUCCEED
on every section of the TOEFL® exam with a full review of Structure, Writing, Reading Comprehension, and Listening Comprehension.

PREPARE

with detailed information on the test, plus hundreds of practice questions to build your skills.

PRACTICE
with 3 full-length practice tests with complete score analysis as well as 3 audio CDs for listening comprehension and vocabulary review.

SCORE HIGHER
with effective strategies for managing time, understanding directions, handling stress, and more.

Book link Audio CD1 Audio CD2 Audio CD3

TOEFL Writing (TWE) Topics and Model Essays



Description: Topics in the following list may appear in your actual test. You should become familiar with this list before you take the computer-based TOEFL test. Remember that when you take the test you will not have a choice of topics. You must write only on the topic that is assigned to you.


Link 1
Or Link 2 Or Link 3

TOEFL Exam Essentials by Learning Express



Description: This essential guide to the TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language) exam is perfect for studying on the go and tackling the exact kinds of questions tested on your upcoming official exam.
Information is presented in an easy-to-follow, straightforward manner so you can find what you need, learn the information, and move on. Each chapter covers the essential facts and practice you need to get prepared for your exam, as well as tips on where to go to for more detailed practice and further information. Whether you need to review all parts of the TOEFL exam or just skip ahead to the sections where you need extra practice and review, TOEFL Exam Essentials has just what you need for focused, targeted practice.


Link 1
Or Link 2

Writing Skills for the GRE & GMAT



Description:
Author: Peterson

Describes the types of essay questions found on the GRE and GMAT, provides advice on writing issue and argument essays, reviews style and grammar, and offers examples of essays answering questions from the official list for each exam.



Link

Mastering the SAT Critical Reading Test



Description: Is the dreaded SAT Critical Reading Test weighing heavily on your mind? Get in shape to tackle it with this in-depth critical reading workout. You'll build up your skills and get the information and practice you need to improve your score—fast!

Introduction

* Overview and proven test-taking strategies
* A practical approach to the Critical Reading Test
* Specifics and strategies for the SAT vocabulary

Part I: Sentence Completion

* Strategies for the sentence completion section
* Practice questions with answers and detailed explanations

Part II: Reading Comprehension

* Strategies for short and long reading comprehension sections
* Practice questions for both short and long passages with answers and detailed explanations

Part III: 2 Practice Tests

* Structured like the actual test so you know what to expect
* Complete with answers and explanations

Link 1 Or Link 2 Or Link 3

IES question papers: Civil Engineering

Description: Previous year UPSC papers for Indian Engineering Services for Civil Engineering available for free direct download. Only objective papers are available, so if you find the conventional papers, please post the links in comments.

N.B.: If there is a bandwidth error while downloading please try sometime later as the host may be busy due to heavy traffic.Use mirror in this case.

Obj-Civil Engineering-2000 Paper-I
Obj-Civi lEngineering-2000 Paper-II
Obj-Civil Engineering-2001 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2001 Paper-II
Obj-Civil Engineering-2002 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2002 Paper-II
Obj-Civil Engineering-2003 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2003 Paper-II
Obj-Civil Engineering-2004 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2004 Paper-II
Obj-Civil Engineering-2005 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2005 Paper-II
Obj-Civil Engineering-2006 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2007 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2007 Paper-II
Obj-Civil Engineering-2008 Paper-I
Obj-Civil Engineering-2008 Paper-II
Obj-General Ability-2008 Paper-I

Download all in one(zip) [Mirror]

IES question papers: Electrical Engineering

Description: Previous year UPSC papers for Indian Engineering Services for Electrical Engineering available for free direct download. Only objective papers are available, so if you find the conventional papers, please post the links in comments.

Share if you like the stuff. Subscribe to feeds to receive regular updates of more such stuff through email.
N.B.: If there is a bandwidth error while downloading please try sometime later as the host may be busy due to heavy traffic.Use Mirror in this case.

Obj-Electrical-1997 Paper-I

Obj-Electrical-1997 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-1998 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-1998 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-1999 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-1999 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-2000 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2000 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-2001 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2001 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-2002 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2002 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2003 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2003 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-2004 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2004 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-2005 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2005 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-2006 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2006 Paper-II
Obj-Electrical-2008 Paper-I
Obj-Electrical-2008 Paper-II
Obj-General Ability-2008 Paper-I


Download all in one(zip) [Mirror]

IES ECE question papers

Description: Previous year UPSC papers for Indian Engineering Services for Electronics and Communication Engineering available for free direct download. Only objective papers are available, so if you find the conventional papers, please post the links in comments.
Share if you like the stuff.Subscribe to feeds to receive regular updates of more such stuff through email.


N.B.: If there is a bandwidth error while downloading please try sometime later as the host may be busy due to heavy traffic.Use mirror link at the bottom in this case

Obj-1997 Paper-I
Obj-1997 Paper-II
Obj-1998 Paper-I
Obj-1998 Paper-II
Obj-1999 Paper-I
Obj-1999 Paper-II
Obj-2000 Paper-I
Obj-2000 Paper-II
Obj-2001 Paper-I
Obj-2001 Paper-II
Obj-2002 Paper-I
Obj-2002 Paper-II
Obj-2003 Paper-I
Obj-2003 Paper-II
Obj-2004 Paper-I
Obj-2004 Paper-II
Obj-2005 Paper-I
Obj-2005 Paper-II
Obj-2006 Paper-I
Obj-2006 Paper-II
Obj-2007 Paper-I
Obj-2007 Paper-II
Obj-2008 Paper-I
Obj-2008 Paper-II
Obj-General Ability-2008 Paper-I

Download all in one(zip) [Mirror].

DRDO SET Test tips

Description: DRDO SET is conducted on all India basis on 1st Sunday of September every year in order to provide equal opportunity to all students from different educational institutions in view of the increasingly wide variation of marks due to increase in the number of educational institutions in the country. DRDO SET exam is of three hours duration consisting of two sections viz. Section 'A' of 100 questions to test the candidate's knowledge in the subject of their BE/ BTech (for Engg discipline) or MSc ( for Science Discipline) and Section 'B' of 50 questions to test the candidate's ability in analytical and qualitative skills, current affairs and general awareness to test the aptitude and scientific knowledge required for Applied Research & Development. Based upon the organization's requirements, DRDO SET is conducted in Engineering Subjects such as Aero, Civil, Electrical, Chemical, Computer, Electronics/Electronics & Communication, Instrumentation, Mechanical, Metallurgy etc and Science subjects such as Chemistry, Physics and Maths/ Operations Research/ Statistics etc. These subjects are specified in the advertisement. DRDO SET exam is conducted only for those subjects where vacancies are sizable in number. Details of eligible candidates, examination schedule, result of the exam, schedule of interviews and list of selected candidates are made available time to time on DRDO website.

Official website: http://rac.in

Test tips:(Courtesy: Orkut.com, experience of sucessful candidate Sreeramamurthy)
Practice lot.................for getting good marks
because small difference you may get or not
but don't disappoint with this exam..............
you need practice only

i am also qualified in second time

First you need good command in the subjects is mandatory
but practice very important

last time i done this mistake

My main suggestion and Experience to prepare

1. books you follow standard books from that your B.Tech course

2. plan perfectly and at same time strictly follow the your plan
(Lot of peoples mistaken here even i was done last time)

and

3. Keep Two/Three tracks in your daily preparation

My self I done and strongly recommend like this

First two track( i prepared lly 1. and 2.)
1. Signals and Systems -->Control Systems --> Comm.System (Principles)
2. Digital Circuits (Boolean Algebra --> Gates --> Combinational Ckts --> Sequential Ckts--> Microprocessor)

Second track (lly 3. and 4. after First two tracks)
3. Networks-->Electronics Devices-->Analog Ckts--> Comm.Systems (Receiver Ckts)
4.EMT (Elecro Statics ---> Maxwell Eqn--> Transmission Lines --> Basic dipole antenna)

Note:
A. Take lot of time to prepare signals and system in 1.Track (You should be very strong in this)
B. Enjoy the Digital Ckt any where even in Railway station but Microprocessor prepare very
less at this movement but just before exam prepare lot because you need to memorize
C. Read good literature about Electronics Devices
D. You need basic in Elecro Statics,and practice in Maxwell eqn and Transmission lines




BARC (OCES/DGFS) Interview tips and info

General tips:
In BARC interview, conceptual aptitude is examined rather than just the mere knowledge of the subject....that means u need to know the subject in great detail with complete understanding....just cramming a formula or cramming a definition will not work...u need to understand the basics behind any formula or definition....



Generally, interview panel has 6-8 members headed by a Chairman of the Committee. Each member asks questions....u r asked about ur favourite topics(generally three) and questions are focussed on that topics...they examine whether you have understood the subject or have just read it...they may start with a question and can go into the minute detail of that....it may happen that you may not answer a question completely but u know the basic fundamental. The knowledge of basic fundas pleases the committee very much.

One thing I wud like to mention here that the people here are very cordial and co-operative and they want every candidate to clear the interview...they provide ample hints and help you wherever you get stuck..the interview becomes more like a discussion session and a candidate feels great after coming out of the interview.

If your interview lasts for abt an hour or more then u have bright chances for a success.For Science people interview may become a bit lengthy and committee may also ask questions from other fields apart from the field u mentioned as your choice.

So, the crux is, identify your strong areas, study in great depth, develop thorough understanding and be positive and confident. A lot of time is left, u can sharpen ur skills during this time.


The time which u spent in the interview room will give u an indication of ur success...if ur interview is getting stretched and u r giving satisfactory replies then u may sense ur success...generally 1.5 hrs to 2 hrs is the time which a successful candidate spends in the interview room...u will know the result the moment ur interview gets over...if u r selected for BARC Training School you will be given a slip indicating a referral for Medical examination...if u get that slip u may congratulate urself for qualifying what is considered as the most trying technical interview in the country...
however if ur interview lasts for more than an hour and u r not being referred for medical test, u may still remain positive as you may be selected for other Training Schools of DAE like NPC Training School, NFC Training School etc....final results are however declared in the third week of july say around 18-25th July...

Joining date is always 1 September of every year.



For computer science candidates:
(Excerpt's from candidate experience)
Hii guys i cleared the interview on 17th june 2008 my interview lasted 1.5 hrs
Do all u r bascis of OS C C++ Data structures and AOA very well
Do pointers in C and all C++ basics very well
They try to confuse u a lot but be firm on u r answers
also they give enough hints to answer !!
Do all basic fundas thats the trick !

(Excerpt from Naveen's experience, successful candidate)
Im from computer science.....my interview was completed 24th june..The interview is memorable experience to me...just they are asking questions from our favorite subjects..I said only three subjects...they immediately said tell 2 more subj.... interview panes is very cool no need to tense......i said my fav subjects Data structures and C,C++,Computation,Algorithms, operating system....
they started from Data structures and c
questions from DS:
1.give 4 applications of each data structure??
from stack to graphs
2.write code for insert a element in middle in the linked list?
3.wat is the diff b/w arry and linked list?
4.wat diff b/w macro and function?
5.which searching tech more useful 4 linked list?
6.write code 4 binary search tree?
7.when the stack is full n empty similal type questions from queue,circular queue...
8.tell diff b/w macro and function?
9.way is inline funtion?(from c++)
from algorithms
if i wrote any program code immediately they said measure time complexity of ur program??
and many more from basics in c and ds
From OS:
How O/s manages data??
draw process state diagram?
wat is system call?
memory is very cheap in these days why these many memory techniques needed??
they are asking more questions from memory management..they are not asking much inner concepts.. some times they are asking silly questions..at that time testing our patience.....be patient at that time....my interview duration 1hour 15min...
even though im not selected i tought my experiece will useful to someone......
For accommodation lot of problem in my day be ready with alternative sources


For electronics candidates
(Excerpt's from candidate experience)
The interview starts with a normal talk like where u from etc etc, then they ask the subject u studied.... i said three n stopped... then they asked tell us some more subjects.. so after i told a list of subjects they settled for 5 subjects. (digital, semiconductor, micro controller, VLSI, Linear Integrated circuits) first they will ask u about ur BE project so be very clear in it don't get stuck up in project anywhere... bring your project report along with you. the questions will not be like the one which we r asked in our college vivas... they will be specific n application oriented. they will not ask u the properties the make up n all... all they want is u to use the info u have to design n get the solution of the problem they will give you. (for me they didn't ask any characteristics n all that does not mean they will not ask at all. come prepared) they used to give me inputs n outputs which was desired by them n asked me design using op amps or design using logic gates....... the overall interview is fun filled interaction with the panel there r jokes cracked be relaxed n laugh out along with the panel if u get stuck somewhere while designing or telling the answer u will be pushed a lot... they throw u ample of hints such that u can pick up from where u got stuck. they will pull u to the solution

(Excerpts from another successful ECE candidate)
i was interviewed for 1.40 hr it was really a good experience all (6)committee members were very very helpful(every interview they starts with mentality 2 select u but rest is in ur hand ) .they asked some formal questions to make u feel comfortable after that they asked my favorite subjects i said ..Electronics devices(including opamps) ,digital ckt & systems ,network theory& analysis n stopped then 1 member said name some more ...then i added analog ckt and tv&radars(thanx to recently ended 8th sem) ..friends i think its better to name at least 4 subjects in decreasing order of ur interest or preparation coz panel will follow d same sequence of subjects 4 questioning so ur 1st fav. subj. will help u to get 1st impression (whole performance will b considered but at least by this u cn gain confidence)........one more thing while explaining any thing on paper try to cover each n every minute detail(including graphs& characteristic curves) & never give any ans. in hurry no matters how well u know abt that for eg :while explaining ohms law never 4get 2 add "keeping all physical condition constant"(of course they r nt askin ohms law

For electrical candidates:
(Excerpt's from candidate experience)
interview started with formal questions like
have u placed in any company if yes then why did u come for barc.
what is ur final year project.(so that u can feel relaxed). of 6 memebers in commitee one have of them started about favourite subjects.i said conrlsys,power sys,machines.
they asked me to about which subject to start first .(control sys).but started with very simple networks . i have answered there question one of the mamdam gone through marks memo and found that i have pulse and digital ckts so she asked about output of skt with rc ckt and diodes (not tough but requires careful observation)and wave form for o/p with pulse i/p.and what happens when resister value is changed with wave forms and transient analyssis of charged inductor (it too requires careful observation).they also concentrated on filters design through control system root locus and significance of poles with respective to filters. then one fo then sir asked me to choose topic in machines. i said induction motor(3 phase).( now tough times started )
asked principle of im (very easy). and asked to draw characteristics drawn now on that graph all question based like stable operational point in graph variation of i/p parameters
and there effects on the system( i felt very tough at beginning but they directed (hinted) with small questions which very easy and very useful to answer final conclusion( big ques)).i.e they are trying to help u to answer complicated ques with simple basic principle u know.(this is the best part of interview because i thought i can never there ques but at end they made me to answer it through simple fundamental i know. i felt like scientist there it self :)) they always help u if u r strong at fundas and able to correlate hints given by them to form final anser.
then they started asking me about ( said not explain but asked to give me short answers) skin effect,ferrentier effect,fault current,hvdc uses

For Instrumentation and Control Candidates:
(Excerpt's from candidate experience)
The panel consisted of 8 … the chairman was very friendly… they made me comfortable… and then asked my favourite subjects for the interview..
I had prepared Industrial instru, process control, sensor & transducer , transmitter and telemetry…
They asked me which subject to start with and I said any one…
They start with RTD.. first asked me to write the chr. Equation, then to find out sensitivity from it.. then drift,span, gain from it.. then to do linear approximation of it….
In between they were also asking about some definitions of accuracy, sensitivity etc..
Difference between gain and transfer function..
Actually where the bookish knowledge ends … there question starts … then they went to wheat stone bridge and grilled me about null deflection etc… why it is not used these days.
[Courtesy: Orkut.com]

DRDO SET ECE question paper 2008

Technical Part
(N.B: Based on memory so some errors might have crept in, some images might not be available)
1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A


2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms

3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms

4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90

5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms

6.A voltage source having a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX

7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)

8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC

9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15

10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]

11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125

12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3

13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms

14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V

15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms

16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET

17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3.
Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}

18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s

19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor

20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.

21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02

22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode

23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV

24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET

25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82

Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.

27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA

28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter

29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier

30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA

31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier

32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β

33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic

34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02

35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave

36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz

37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is
a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V

38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V

39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44

40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi

41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯

42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD

43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures

44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C

45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.

46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region

47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA

48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter

49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register

50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory

51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])

52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t

53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable

54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system

55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function

56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)

57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| < 2 c) 0.5<|z|<2 d) the entire z-plane

58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w c) a constant and τg is proportional to w d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w

59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz

60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5

62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time

63. The signal flow graph of the given network is

64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10

65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5

66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is

67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is

68. If A = [2 0 0 2], then e^At is given by
a) [e^2t 0 0 e^2t] b) [e^-2t 0 0 e^-2t] c) [e^t/2 0 0 e^t/2] d) [e^-t/2 0 0 e^-t/2]
69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180

70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure

71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal

72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W

74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage

75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate

76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal
a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector

77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct
c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct

78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector
d) product demodulator

79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4

80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)

81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T

82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA

83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel

84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)

85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2

86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2

87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps

88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ

89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds

90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0

91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m

92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm

93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m

94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms

95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90

0.9 L90 0.2 L0]

Is

a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal d) neither reciprocal nor lossless

96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz

97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45

98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction

99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2

100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.

DRDO SET General Abilty Question paper 2008

[Sample question]
(Section B)
101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP

102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level

103. In the month of July, it is winter in
a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London

104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister

105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10

106.DRDO was formed in
a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958

107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of
a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC

108. DARL 202 is a variety of
a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato

109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile
b) a quick reaction surface to air missile
c) an intermediate range ballistic missile
d) a supersonic cruise missile

110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device

111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is
a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5

112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x

113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x
115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)……..
a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1

117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for
a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only
118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A
-sin A cos A] is

a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A
sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]

119. Consider the function f(x) defined as
F(x) = 3x-1, x<0
0, x=0
2x+5, x>0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1

120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8

121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation

122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11

123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3

124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0

125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1

126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may

129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods


132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water

133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for

134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard

135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.

136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable

137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365

138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53

139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.

140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship
denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R

141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR

142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER

144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor

Download scanned copy of DRDO SET 2008 General ability paper


Alternative download link
[Submitted by: prem, Courtesy: Orkut community DRDO SET 2009 Sc'B]

Due to a large no. of requests, I am putting down the solution keys for the General Ability Paper strictly according to the question order as given in the scanned PDF:
101)C, 102)C, 103)A, 104)C, 105) B, 106)C, 107)B, 108)B ,109)C, 110)A, 111)B, 112)A, 113)D, 114)D, 115)B, 116)D, 117)B, 118)C, 119)A, 120)D, 121)C, 122)D, 123)C, 124)B, 125)C, 126)D, 127)C, 128)A, 129)NA , 130)NA , 131)NA , 132)NA , 133)D , 134)A , 135)A, 136)A, 137)C, 138)D, 139)B, 140)C, 141)D, 142)A, 143)C , 144)A, 145)C, 146)D, 147)B, 148)C, 149)B, 150)A
Some of the answer keys are not available, reader's are requested to discuss them.I thank the reader's for their appreciation & feedback.

IAS General Studies papers

Description: IAS Preliminary and Mains General Studies full papers available for free direct download in PDF format.


Preliminary paper :
Preliminary General Studies 1993

Mains papers (Paper I + Paper II):

General Studies 1987

General Studies 1991

General Studies 1992

General Studies 1993

General Studies 1999


General Studies 2001


General Studies 2005

General Studies 2008

DRDO SET Computer Science (CS) 2008 paper

Description: DRDO technical questions for CS/IT students.
No. of questions: 100


Download: Link 1 Or Link 2 Or Link 3

(Thanks to Ajay for the paper & Orkut DRDO SET 2009 community.)

AIEEE question papers and solutions

Description: AIEEE previous years question papers with their solutions.Download pdf.

AIEEE-2002-Question-Paper
AIEEE-2002-Solution

AIEEE-2007-Question-Paper
AIEEE-2007-Solutions

AIEEE-2008-Question
Aieee-2008--Solution

Aieee-2009-Paper
Aieee-2009-Answers

DRDO SET Electrical paper 2008

Description: DRDO technical questions for Electrical Engineering (EE) students.
No. of questions: 100 in
Download: Link 1 Or Link 2

(Courtesy: Orkut DRDO SET 2009 Sc'B community)

Thursday, October 29, 2009

Kaplan IT Learning: 640-801 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)



Description: Students preparing for Information Technology Certification Exams trust Kaplan IT Learning for superior study tools developed by subject matter experts. This Certification Exam Preparation Guide is objective-driven and contains a variety of tools to help certification exam candidates focus their study efforts.

This preparation guide contains these structured sections to help students prepare for the exam:

Scope - identifies the learning objectives for each section

Focused Explanation
- provides definitions, in-depth discussions, and examples

Review Checklist - highlights the key learning points at the end of each major section

Additional sections are located at the end of the book:

Test Taking Strategies
- including how to register for the live exam, and test day strategies for taking the live exam

General Tips
- arriving at the testing center and last minute review advice

Explanation of Test Item Types
- specific advice for answering item types, such as multiple choice or drag-and-drop item types

This preparation guide includes an authorization code to download a certification practice exam provided by Transcender:

Designed to maximize a student's score.

Exposes the student to a realistic exam experience.

Diagnostic score reporting by objective to help students focus on areas of weakness.

Detailed answer explanations clarify not only why the right answer is right, but why the distracters are not correct.

Guidance directing the student to additional resources if they need it.

Link

Top sites for free Mock online CAT and resources


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SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065


Description: Author: Katherine Sierra, Bert Bates | Publisher: McGraw-Hill Osborne Media | 851 pages | PDF

The Best Fully Integrated Study System Available–Written by the Lead Developers of Exam 310-065

With hundreds of practice questions and hands-on exercises, SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Study Guide covers what you need to know–and shows you how to prepare–for this challenging exam.

100% complete coverage of all official objectives for exam 310-065
Exam Objective Highlights in every chapter point out certification objectives to ensure you’re focused on passing the exam
Exam Watch sections in every chapter highlight key exam topics covered
Simulated exam questions match the format, tone, topics, and difficulty of the real exam
Covers all SCJP exam topics, including:

Declarations and Access Control · Object Orientation · Assignments · Operators · Flow Control, Exceptions, and Assertions · Strings, I/O, Formatting, and Parsing · Generics and Collections · Inner Classes · Threads · Development

Link 1 Or Link 2 Or Link 3


Vizag steel plant Management Trainee (MT) mechanical sample papers

There are two papers technical & General ability (containing .Maths/Arithmatics/Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning/Mental Ability)for which solved samples have been provided.
Paper 1 (Technical):

1. An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase,decrease,remains same,none)
2. Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment?(wl/4)
3. Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)
4. Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)
5. When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )
6. For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing,carburizing,neutral,none)
7. Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics
8. When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=?L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3
9.Product simplification does not mean??Product characterization
10 Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing? CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.
11. Concurrent engineering means? (Manufacturing, designing, both,none)
12. Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity-(process layout,line+process,functional layout)
13. 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
14 For which material is negative allowance provided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
15. What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)
16. What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
17. Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)18. Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)
19. What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
20. As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)
21. Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
22. A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)
23. A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)
24. Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing? (increases,decreases,no change)
25. Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
26. Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)
27. Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
28. Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)
29. EOQ=?
30 Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)
31. Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)
32. Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)
33. self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)
34 The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)
35. when steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)
36. In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)
37. Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )
38. Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton
39. Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )
40. High speed centrifugal pump has _? (vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
41. Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_? (Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
42. When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_43. When entropy of a system increases_? (unavailable energy increases )
44. Rolling is a process widely used for_?
(I section,tubes)
45. Tool nomenclature_?
46. In francis turbine movement of steam?
47. For low power consumption _? (rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
47. Continuous chips occur in_? (High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
48. Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_? (fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)
49. In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_? (nitrogen,oxygen)
50. Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_? (corrosion)
51. Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_?
(decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
52. which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material? (Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)
53. When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified? (Endurance limit)
54. where is stress concentration maximum? (notches, stress reducing throughcuts)
55. Power transmitted through a belt drive_? P(T2-T1)
56. According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is (Wcr = Cπ2EI/l2)
57. During sensible heating, specific humidity_? (remains constant)
58. COP of a refrigerator is _? (greater than 1 )
59. The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_? (less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)60. The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_? (maximum,min)
61. for a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_? (∑ f(X),f(Y),f(Z)=0,∑M=0)
62. For a statically determinate set of forces- (there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)63. 1-2-3 analysis is used for_? (1.break even analysis, ??)
64. A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120???
65. A problem n determining time in a queue??
66. Energy equation for a laminar flow is _? (Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)67. Undercuts in welding occurs due to_? (low welding current,high welding current)
68. Work holding equipment in shearing??
69. At the centre of a nozzle _? (Mach no<1>=1;=1)


Paper 2 (GA):

Section - I

Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)

1. Four prime numbers are written in ascending order of their magnitudes the product of the first three is 385 and that of the last three is 1001. The largest given prime number is

a. 11

b. 13

c. 17

d. 19

2. Mahavir deposited in the bank from Monday to Saturday the amounts of Rs. 87.80, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 3677.98, Rs. 92899.01, Rs. 66 and Rs. 554945.19 respectively. Find his total deposit for this week

a. Rs. 651879.61

b. Rs. 652779.61

c. Rs. 650879.51

d. Rs. 655889.71

3. Amar deposited in Vijay Bank Rs. 259206.16 on Monday. Rs. 201890.48 on Tuesday, Rs. 284.16 on Wednesday. He withdrew Rs. 50000.00 on Thursday. He again deposited Rs. 230.01 on Friday and Rs. 72.62 on Saturday. Find his total balance in the bank for this week

a. Rs. 501783.43

b. Rs. 501683.43

c. Rs. 511693.43

d. Rs. 511683.43

4. I was born on October 17, 1927. How old I was on Jan. 26, 1978?

a. 49 years and 101 days

b. 50 years and 100 days

c. 50 years and 101 days

d. 50 years and 103 days

5. Find the total of the following amount

Rs. 1230.79, Rs. 11368.08, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 10314.89, Rs. 64.8, Rs. 101.00 and Rs. 3677.98

a. Rs. 27961.1

b. Rs. 26961.17

c. Rs. 26951.17

d. Rs. 25961.17

6. How many pieces, each of length 4.5 m can be cut of 225 m of wire?

a. 40

b. 54

c. 56

d. 50

7. Parkash and Girish were travelling together. Prakash paid Rs. 200 for their stay in a hotel and Girish paid taxi fare of Rs. 80. If they have to share these expenses equally, then

a. Prakash should pay Rs. 60 to Girish

b. Girish should pay Rs. 120 to Prakash

c. Girish should pay Rs. 60 to Prakash

d. Prakash should pay Rs. 120 to Girish

8. Sum of the numbers from 1 to 20 is

a. 210

b. 110

c. 220

d. 105

9. Which of the following is equal to 115 x 15?

a. 105 x 10 + 115 x 5

b. 11 x 515

c. 1151 x 5

d. 110 x 15 + 5 x 15

10. The unit's digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is

a. 0

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

11. The smallest natural number by which the product of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible is

a. 16

b. 32

c. 48

d. 96

12. The number of prime factors of (6)10 x (7)17 x (55)27 is

a. 54

b. 64

c. 81

d. 91

13. The total income of Hazari and Murari is Rs. 3000. Hazari spends 60% of his income and Murari spends 80% of his income. If their savings are equal. Find the income of Hazari

a. Rs. 2000

b. Rs. 3000

c. Rs. 1500

d. Rs. 1000

14. Bholanath save 25% if his income, but due to dearness the expenses increased by 25%, still he saves Rs. 30. Find his income

a. Rs. 400

b. Rs. 480

c. Rs. 450

d. Rs. 475

15. In a city 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich 10% are illiterate. What percentage of the poor population is illiterate?

a. 36%

b. 60%

c. 40%

d. None of these

Section - II

Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)

Directions (Q 1-5): Find the missing characters from the following series

1. ab _ a _ b _ a _ bba

a. aaab b. baba

c. abba d. baab

2. _ bc _ _ bb _ aabc

a. abab b. caab

c. acac d. aaab

3. cc _ a _ cabccb _ cca _ c _ ba

a. cbaba b. bacbc

c. bcabc d. abcbc

4. cba _ cb _ ccb _ c _

a. caac b. cbca

c. cbac d. cabc

5. aa _ cb _ aa _ _ bba _ ccb _

a. cabaac b. ababab

c. cbccab d. aaabca

6. If day before yesterday was Sunday then next Monday will be after ____ days.

a. 4 b. 5

c. 6
d. 7

7. If Sept 9 was Friday then the last Tuesday of the same Month will fall on

a. 25 b. 26

c. 27
d. 28

8. If the month of May begins on Sunday then the third Friday will fall on

a. 19 b. 20

c. 21
d. 22

9. If January 31 in a particular year falls on a Saturday then January 1 will be

a. Sunday b. Tuesday

c. Thursday d. Monday

10. At 6 PM the hour hand of a clock will point towards

a. North b. South

c. SW
d. SE

11. A boy walked 400 m north from his home, then he turned right and walked 100 m, then he turned left and walked 500 m. in which direction is he walking now

a. North b. South

c. NE
d. NW

12. A car starts from a point A. Then it moves 4 KM towards South. Then it turns right and moves 3 KM. How far is it from point A now.

a. 3 KM b. 4 KM

c. 5 KM d. 0 KM

13. 3, 10, 29, 66, _

a. 137
b. 127

c. 103
d. 218

14. 41, 29, 19, 11, _

a. 5 b. 6

c. 4
d. 3

15. ZXUQ : ACFJ : : NLIE : :

a. KMQT b. KMPU

c. LMPT d. KMPT


Answers

Section - I Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)

1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b

6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. d, 10. b

11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. b, 15. a

Section - II Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)

1. b, 2. c, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c

6. c, 7. c, 8. b, 9. c, 10. b

11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14. a, 15. d